----- Original Message -----
Sent: Thursday, October 09, 2003 9:04
AM
Subject: Economic Science [Was: Re: The
Widow's Cruse
Barkley:
Schumpeter's silence on the subject matter in
History of Economic Analysis accords with Samuelson's comments:
"Curiously enough, [Schumpeter]
rarely mentioned his own theories. The nature of entrepreneurship and
profits was discussed; but only once did I hear him discuss the reasons why
the interest rate would be zero in a stationary state, and then only in an
advanced seminar and under heavy pressure from [students]."
Why this 'curious' silence?
"I have never tried to bring about
a Schumpeter school," he advised his Bonn students in 1930. "There is
none and it ought not to exist.... ECONOMICS IS NOT PHILOSOPHY BUT
A SCIENCE. Hence there should be no 'schools' in our field.
[As in "mainstream", "monetarist", PKT, etc. - insert GT].... Many people feel
irritated by this attitude. For in Germany alone there are half a dozen
economists who regard themselves as heads of such 'schools,' as fighters for
absolute light against absolute darkness. BUT THERE IS NO USE COMBATING
THAT SORT OF THING. ONE SHOULD NOT FIGHT WHAT LIFE IS GOING TO ELIMINATE
ANYWAY." [As in my earlier statement that Schumpeter "chose not to
waste his time" in attempts to convert true believers to his point of view -
insert GT].
In the context, the concept of
Economics as SCIENCE is not that used by Sweden's Central Bank in
rewarding 'mainstream', 'monetarist', and - one day? - PKTers for
contributions thereto.
Instead, the concept of
Economics as Science mirrors the classical (Humean) concept of
"knowledge" - in a working paper from the 1980s, I summarized it as
follows:
1. All knowledge is
axiomatic.
2. Hence,
knowledge relates to a state of mind.
3. A state of mind is either
clear or confused, coherent or incoherent, logical or illogical.
4. A claim to knowledge is a
claim to a clear, coherent, and logical state of mind.
5. Hence, a claim to
knowledge is distinct from a claim to opinion, whose validity
is beyond any conceivable refutation on grounds of clarity, coherence, and
logic.
6. A claim to knowledge
derives from the perception that one's mind is clear, coherent, and logical in
holding such claim to be beyond dispute by any other mind equally clear,
coherent, and logical.
7. Hence, a claim to
knowledge can only be refuted by minds satisfying the requirements of clarity,
coherence, and logic.
8. A claim to
axiomatic knowledge is a claim to a state of mind marked by
clarity, coherence, and logic in its grasp of propositions beyond relative
time and space.
9. The art
of economics addresses policy issues within relative time and space in light
of the axiomatic propositions of economic science
itself.
The above concept of knowledge
accords perfectly with the definition offered in 1922 by Keynes [my working
paper continued]:
"The Theory of Economics does not
furnish a body of settled conclusions immediately applicable to a
policy. It is a method rather than a doctrine, an apparatus of the mind,
a technique of thinking, which helps its possessor to draw correct
conclusions."
Gunnar
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, October 08, 2003 6:17
PM
Subject: Re: The Widow's Cruse
Gunnar,
I just took a look at
Schumpeter's final book, his masterly 1260
page History of Economic Analysis. Looking in the
index I found
"Logic" as an entry on page 27 and pp. 448-454. The
entry on p.
27, part of the introduction to the book
reads:
"The former [logic] claims our
attention because economists
have made a not inconsiderable contribution to it but
especially
because of their propensity to dogmatize and to quarrel
about
'method': economists who enjoy this sport are apt to be
influenced by the writings of the logicians of their time
which
therefore, though more apparently than really,
gain some influence,
legitimate or otherwise, upon our work."
That is it for there,
nothing about economics being a branch
of logic.
The later pages discuss
the work of particular economists
who specifically worried about logic, with the main
figures being
William Whewell, John Stuart Mill, and Karl
Marx. He spends most
of his time talking about Mill, especially his controversy
with Comte
over how economics should be done. Schumpeter
concludes that
Mill does an excellent job of describing and defending how
economists use the "Concrete Deductive Method" and
the
"Inverse Deductive or Historical Method," and especially
(in italics)
"the necessity of studying actual human behavior in all
its local and
temporal varieties."
However, I find nothing in
this set of pages either that suggests
anything along the lines of Schumpeter desiring for
economics to
"become a branch of logic."
Barkley Rosser
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, October 08, 2003
3:19 PM
Subject: Re: The Widow's Cruse
Bill:
A brief comment and a
question.
Schumpeter, who chose not to
waste his time attempting to drive the point home to his colleagues, was
confident that economics would eventually be recognized as a BRANCH OF
LOGIC.
In a memorial article on Schumpeter, Paul A.
Samuelson expressed his surprise at this notion - so you are not alone in
not getting it.
What does Goedel have to do with Y = C +
I?
Gunnar
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Wednesday, October 08, 2003
10:46 AM
Subject: [gang8] Re: The Widow's
Cruse
***|Paul has yet to respond. At issue is the
distinction between analytical and empirical
economics as practiced Keynes and PKT economists,
respectively. In one case, the precursor of the Y =
C + I proposition entails a logical absurdity, which
is disregarded in the other case. Isn't that so,
Paul? Gunnar|***
Gunnar, you are confusing economic models with formal
logic or
mathematics. No model is "true" by the
standards of formal
logic or mathematics. They are
generalizations or
simplifications that help us to
understand or heuristic aids in
teaching concepts.
Moreover, as Goedel tells us, at some level of
extrapolation
every formal logical or mathematical
structure beyond the trivial
becomes self-
contradictory or incomplete. That was perhaps the
most important discovery of the twentieth century.
I think your approach is therefore an intellectual
dead-end and a
waste of time. It has no more value
to us except
recreationally, if we have nothing
better to do, like dominoes.
In other words, you are playing a game with us.
--------- Original Message ---------
| DATE: Tue, 7 Oct 2003 19:55:57 |
| From: Gunnar Tómasson
<gunnar.tomasson@xxxxxxxxxxx> |
| To: <pkt@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
| Cc: "Gang8"
<gang8@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
On
October 2, I posted the below message to PKT.
Paul
Davidson responded off-list as follows:
Gunnar did you ever note that Keynes specifically changed his
definition in
the GT from that used in the TM?
To which I
replied:
Yes.
There, the
Widow's Cruse is embedded in Y = C + I.
****
Paul has yet to
respond.
At issue is the distinction
between analytical and empirical economics as
practiced Keynes and PKT economists, respectively.
In one case, the precursor of
the Y = C + I proposition entails a logical absurdity, which is
disregarded in the other case.
Isn't that so,
Paul?
Gunnar
Paul:
Further to my message of yesterday's date -
I will
check out Ch. 2 of your book at the IMF library tomorrow.
- I
have now read the chapter.
Briefly, its contents are reflected in the chapter heading,
'Keynes's principle of effective demand' -
there is NOTHING there on "the Keynes theory of
value".
I
also used the occasion to leaf through Vol. I of 'A Treatise on
Money' and, in doing so, took special note of the following two
passages:
1. "(1) Income. -
We propose to mean identically the same thing by the three
expressions: (1) the community's money-income; (2) the
earnings of the factors of production; and (3) the cost of
production; and we reserve the term profits for the
difference between the cost of production of the current output and
its actual sale-proceeds, so that profits are not part of the
community's income as thus defined." (MacMillan and Co., London,
1950, p. 123)
In turn, Keynes identified NET Investment as the source of
Profits.
2. "Human effort and human
consumption are the ultimate matters from which alone economic
transactions are capable of deriving any significance; and all other
forms of expenditure only acquire importance from their having some
relationship, sooner or later, to the effort of producers or to the
expenditure of consumers." (p. 134)
Whence it follows that Investment is a
pen-ultimate aspect of a production process whose
ultimate object is Consumption - that is to say, Investment in
any given period translates into Consumption in some future
period.
And, by including Profits/NET Investment
as part of the community's disposable purchasing power in any given
period, Keynes ended up with an analytical mess of the first order -
the fabled Widow's Cruse:
"There is one peculiarity of profits (or
losses) which we may note in passing, because it is one of the reasons
why it is necessary to segregate them from income proper, as a
category apart. If entrepreneurs choose to spend a portion of
their profits on consumption (and there is, of course, nothing to
prevent them from doing this), the effect is to increase
the profit on the sale of liquid consumption-goods by an amount
exactly equal to the amount of profits which have been thus
expended. This follows from our definitions, because such
expenditure constitutes a diminution of saving, and therefore an
increse in the difference between I' and S. Thus, however much
of their profits entrepreneurs spend on consumption, the increment of
wealth belonging to entrepreneurs remains the same as before.
Thus profits, as a source of capital increment for entrepreneur's, are
a widow's cruse which remains undepleted however much of them may be
devoted to riotous living. When, on the other hand,
entrepreneurs are making losses, and seek to recoup these losses by
curtailing their normal expenditure on consumption, i.e. by
saving more, the cruse becomes a Danaid jar which can never be filled
up; for the effect of this reduced expenditure is to inflict on the
producers of consumption-goods a loss of an equal amount.
Thus the diminution of their wealth, as a class, is as great, in
spite of their savings, as it was before." (p. 139)
Keynes' confusion in this respect
carried over into the General Theory.
For replacement of Entrepreneurial
Profits in the amount of NET Investment by the concept of
Expected Profits in the amount of "SOMETHING" (Samuelson's
phrase in Foundations of Economic Analysis, p. 87) cannot
drive the Widow's Cruse out of business - for the Widow's Cruse was
born of the misguided attempt by Keynes to integrate Entrepreneurial
Profits and Income in a unitary scheme of monetary
analysis.
You insisted the other day that Keynes
had been "consistent" in his reasoning throughout the General
Theory.
Insofar as the Widow's Cruse is
concerned, the "consistency" consisted in perpetuating gross
analytical error.
Gunnar
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