With regard
to the subject header but not the content, we all know that Keynes asked the
question why would anyone hold part of their wealth in money rather than in
higher interest-bearing or profit-earning assets, and replied that there are
the transactions, precautionary and speculative motives for doing so, and
later added the finance motive, as Paul D. has taught
us.
Would the state
theory of money imply that ?to pay taxes? should be added to the list as a
separate item, or does it fall under one of the
others?