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Why is the utilization of capacity endogenous?
Or at least in the Kaleckian models, why is it endogenous? Don't most
thinkers following the line of Keynes believe that the reasons why the
economy doesn't always function at full capacity is because of uncertainty
about the future-something certainly that's exogenous. Why do Kaleckian
models involve the utilization of capacity changing with various variables?
Is there a way to integrate the Keynesian model with endogenous utilization?
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- Thread context:
- Re: goedel, (continued)
- Re: goedel,
John Vertegaal Mon 07 Oct 2002, 14:45 GMT
- Re: goedel,
Gunnar Tomasson Mon 07 Oct 2002, 15:19 GMT
- Re: goedel,
Dr. Bruce R. McFarling Mon 07 Oct 2002, 14:46 GMT
- Re: goedel,
william_b_ryan Mon 07 Oct 2002, 14:47 GMT
- Why is the utilization of capacity endogenous?,
Bill James Thu 03 Oct 2002, 19:07 GMT
- The Keynes Plan,
Henry C.K. Liu Wed 02 Oct 2002, 20:16 GMT
- Re: Keynes Stood On His Head?,
William B. Ryan Wed 02 Oct 2002, 16:46 GMT
- Samuelson vs. Keynes on "theory",
Gunnar Tomasson Wed 02 Oct 2002, 15:34 GMT
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