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Re: Food: When is it a right or a handout?
- To: post keynesian thought <pkt@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Subject: Re: Food: When is it a right or a handout?
- From: Harry Veeder <eo200@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 13 Jun 2002 23:25:00 +0100
- User-agent: Microsoft-Outlook-Express-Macintosh-Edition/5.0.3
> From: Alan G Isaac <aisaac@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
> Organization: American University
> Reply-To: Alan G Isaac <aisaac@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
> Date: Thu, 13 Jun 2002 11:34:29 -0400 (Eastern Daylight Time)
> To: pkt@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Subject: Re: Food: When is it a right or a handout?
>
> On Sat, 08 Jun 2002 13:16:38 +0100 Harry Veeder <eo200@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
> wrote:
>> If a person over some period in their life objects to working for money,
>> should they also be refused food until they are starving?
>
> If a person over some period of a basketball game
> objects to shooting the ball, should they also be refused
> points until they are losing?
If the person objects to picking up the ball at the beginning
of the game then they are already losing. If you are born
rich you can readily afford to begin by losing, then if you
are born poor.
> If you change the game then their "objection" loses any
> perceived moral force. (Not that I perceive any.)
Yes, but I was not suggesting the game itself inherently immoral.
I am saying forced participation in the game is immoral when
there is a food surplus.
Harry Veeder
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