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Re. Causation In Theory



If I may briefly intervene in this very interesting discussion of causality
and prediction, it seems that the post-modern critique of science is
apposite here (found in for instance Lyotard's The Post-Modern Condition);
that is, there is no scientific way of proving the truth of scientific
findings.  Once causality is stripped from the 'laws' of science, then the
lawfulness of those laws is stripped away as well.  As Hume observed, what
is the import of statistical correlations if one does not infer the
(unknown) future, i.e., causality, from them?

DG



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