Re: Surplus Value or Profit

[John Vertegaal <vertegaa@xxxxxxxxx>]

Gunnar:

With all due respect, but I would suggest that it takes more
than "a brief cursory look at Chapters 1 - 6" to argue the
supposed incoherence of Keynes' GT.
Then you probably would discover that Keynes had a specific
motive for putting A1 (the payments *including profits* to
other entrepreneurs) within the domain of user costs.  And
that he explicitly prohibits the concept of U=0.
  Your argument hinges on U=0 and on a static interpretation
of the model.  As someone else remarked already, profits (GT
congruous) are determined in the *redistribution* of income
and not in its initial distribution.  Hence your argument
falls apart from within.

John V