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Re: Keynes and competition



At 11:03 AM 5/23/01 +0900, you wrote:
> The trouble here is that you are (like most mainstream economists)
> confusing market clearing with market equilibrium.  As I have written many
> times (but no one bothers to read Davidson) Marshall took the term
> equilibrium from physics where it means merely a balancing of forces.
Thus
> a market can be in equilibrium WITHOUT it being cleared!!  Keynes, a good
> Marshallian followed Marshall's terminology (and generally accepted
> "scientific" terminology)  -- but it was the General  Equilibrium people
> who conflated CLEARING with Equilibrium.
>
> Let me say it again Clearing is a suffficient BUT NOT  A NECESSARY
> CONDITION FOR EQUILIBRIUM!!

OK! I used the term "equilibrium" as the same meaning as "clearing", of
course, I know its difference as you said. I'm sorry. I'll hereafter take
care of the differences.
Then I would like to ask you, again, whether or not you think that the goods
market is always cleared in Keynes' system. If you answer "yes", I can
satisfy.


For involuntary unemployment equilibrium , the quantity of goods demanded in the goods markets equals the quantity of goods supplied by profit maximizing entrepreneurs

I think that the following two points are  critical in considering about
Keynes' system and the condition of competition. One point is whether or not
one thinks that the goods market is cleared in Keynes' system, the other
point is whether or not one thinks that money is non reproducible asset.
If one thinks that the goods market is cleared and money is reproducible
asset, he has truly classical economic thought kept Say's law holding.


That is correct for the unemployed can always be employed or self employed -- if money grows on trees (is reproducible) -- then as long as the marginal utility of harvesting money from the money tree exceeds the worker's marginal disutility of reaching up to harvest the tree, then workers will  be employed or self employed util the marginal utility of harvesting the last dollar equals the marginal disutility of reaching up-- And this equality is the definition of full employment.

If
one thinks that the goods market is cleared and money is non reproducible,
he has, at least , the similar( I don't know the same) idea as you in the
sense that involuntary unemployment can arise because of the existence of
non reproducible money. The above two cases are  consistent with the
assumption of the perfect competition. For no one can affect the price at
all since goods market is cleared. And if one thinks that goods market is
not cleared, he is in the imperfect competition world, irrespective of
whether or not he thinks  of money as non reproducible asset, as shown by
Arrow's paper titled "Toward a Theory of Price Adjustment" in THE ALLOCATION
OF ECONOMIC RESOURCES (1959).
Is my understanding correct??


Not quite.  Even in imperfect competition, for involuntary unemployment equilibrium , the quantity of goods demanded in the goods markets equals the quantity of goods supplied by profit maximizing entrepreneurs, i.e., the goods market clears given the profit expectations of entrepreneurs and the  price elasticity of the downward sloping demand curve that they face. If Arrow claims otherwise then he is just wrong.  (See 1977 Frank Hahn's article that I mentioned in my previous email.}

I reiterate for the umpteenth time. Imperfect competition is neither a necessary NOR a sufficient condition for involuntary unemployment equilibrium. [If it was a sufficient condition then New Keynesians could never recommend a policy for achieving full employment. If it was a necessary condition, then toy could never have involuntary unemployment even with pure competition and non producible liquid assets.].

Paul

Paul.
Paul Davidson
Editor, JOURNAL OF POST KEYNESIAN ECONOMICS
Holly Chair of Excellence in Political Economy
Economics Department - University of Tennessee
523 SMC
Knoxville, Tennessee 37996-0550
work phone: (865) 974-4221
fax: (865) 974-4601/  (865) 974-1686
home phone and  fax: (865) 692-0802



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