Re: causation in theory

[David Gleicher <104201.2301@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Jonathan,

Perhaps I'm being dense, and I confess to coming into this discussion late,
but tell me, when you assert:  'Statistics tells us what is likely to
happen if things stay pretty much the same as they have been in the past.'
is that a scientific law?  (By the way, what is 'pretty much the same'?)

If it isn't a scientific law, then it would seem you've introduced
'metaphysics' into you're own argument.  If it is a sceintific law--to get
to the distincition you are making--is it an empirical description or does
it derrive from 'explanation'?

This gets to the point that I was making about the post-modern critique,
which you seemed to dismiss, and which is an anwer to my question;  i.e.,
there is no way of scientifically proving your assertion.

DG