Re: causation in theory

[David Gleicher <104201.2301@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

If I may briefly intervene in this very interesting discussion of causality
and prediction, it seems that the post-modern critique of science is
apposite here (found in for instance Lyotard's The Post-Modern Condition);
that is, there is no scientific way of proving the truth of scientific
findings.

Once causality is stripped from the 'laws' of science, then the lawfulness
of those laws is stripped away as well.  As Hume observed, what is the
predictive import of a statistical correlation if one does not infer the
(unknown) future, i.e., causality, from it?

DG