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Re: profit, rent, etc.



>Question:
>
>If in our explanatory efforts we accept the fact that we can't fully
>disambiguate between, say, monopoly returns and profit returns in real
>world cases, why does it matter that in the same way we can't fully
>disambiguate between the returns of profit, rent, and labor, as defined
>by Kirzner and Mises, in real world cases.
>
>E.g. it seems impossible in the case of Bill Gates and Microsoft to fully
>disambiguate between monopoly returns, profit returns, labor returns, and
>rent returns.  So what?
>
>Greg Ransom
>UC-Riverside
>
>
Question about the question:  What does disambiguate mean? i can find
ambiguous....viz. obscure, doubtful classification......

maybe thats it!

kind regards
bill
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