profit, rent, etc.

[GREG RANSOM <GRANSOM@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Question:

If in our explanatory efforts we accept the fact that we can't fully
disambiguate between, say, monopoly returns and profit returns in real
world cases, why does it matter that in the same way we can't fully
disambiguate between the returns of profit, rent, and labor, as defined
by Kirzner and Mises, in real world cases.

E.g. it seems impossible in the case of Bill Gates and Microsoft to fully
disambiguate between monopoly returns, profit returns, labor returns, and
rent returns.  So what?

Greg Ransom
UC-Riverside