Re: [Pen-l] the "general strike" in Iran and the U.S.

["Bill O'Connor" <billyoc@xxxxxxxxx>]

knowknot@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx writes:

> Apart from this being, at best, a theoretical metalegal" but not
> real-life legal question and from the related fantastical factual
> premise of the above ruminations (i.e., that it is not
> culturally/politically unrealistic even in light of presently ongoing
> circumstances to posit anything close to a general strike in the
> U.S.), what provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act (whether as originally
> enacted or as since amended) or, for that matter, anywhere else in
> U.S. law make a "general strike" as that term is commonly understood
> "absolutely illegal in the U.S."?

http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/uscode29/usc_sec_29_00000158----000-.html#FN-1REF
...

It shall be an unfair labor practice for a labor organization or its
agentsâ 
...
to engage in, or to induce or encourage any individual employed by any
person engaged in commerce or in an industry affecting commerce to
engage in, a strike or a refusal in the course of his employment to use,
manufacture, process, transport, or otherwise handle or work on any
goods, articles, materials, or commodities or to perform any services; 


-- 
In Solidarity,
Billy O'Connor
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