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Re: [Pen-l] the "general strike" in Iran and the U.S.
On 6/22/09, Bill O'Connor said:
> Robert Naiman . . . writes:
>
>> * * *
>> wouldn't a "general strike" be illegal in the U.S.
>> under Taft-Hartley?
>
> Absolutely illegal in the U.S.
Apart from this being, at best, a theoretical metalegal" but not real-life
legal question and from the related fantastical factual premise of the
above ruminations (i.e., that it is not culturally/politically unrealistic
even in light of presently ongoing circumstances to posit anything close to
a general strike in the U.S.), what provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act
(whether as originally enacted or as since amended) or, for that matter,
anywhere else in U.S. law make a "general strike" as that term is commonly
understood "absolutely illegal in the U.S."?
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