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Re: Marxological query



At 18:12 22/05/2006, you wrote:
>From Ch. 6 of Capital when Marx is listing the conditions for the sale of
labor power

"The second essential condition to the owner of money finding labour-power
in the market as a commodity is this ? that the labourer instead of being
in the position to sell commodities in which his labour is incorporated,
must be obliged to offer for sale as a commodity that very labour-power,
which exists only in his living self."

i.e. People won't sell labor power if they can sell the goods actually
produced with their labor.

Actually, there is a 3rd condition which is implicit--- the option of renting (or buying) means of production must not be available to the worker-- ie., capital has 'seized possession' of the process of production. Thus, the worker is 'obliged'. None of what follows, though, flows from what Marx said.
m



Does this imply that a condition of selling LP is that as soon as a
use-value is produced it must be PHYSICALLY out of the posession of the
laborer (or that there is a tendency towards this happening) ? To
illustrate, say a worker must screw the head on a doll. Does this imply
that they have to put the head on the doll on a moving assembly line that
they can't stop and the doll quickly moves out of their possession? the
alternative would be that in the capitalist's factory, using the
capitalist's materials, the worker screws the doll's head and keeps them
in a box by his side.

Obviously, no LP would be sold in the physically identical case that the
worker purchases the doll materials, assembles them himself, and sells the
finished product. And aren't formal property rights reflecting underlying
material relations? So would LP still be sold if the same physical process
happened under conditions of capitalist property?

Michael A. Lebowitz Professor Emeritus Economics Department Simon Fraser University Burnaby, B.C., Canada V5A 1S6

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