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Re: alternate universe on income inequality



The post (from a Hayak list?) is almost too silly to comment on.  The table
has nothing to do with income *distribution* (the share that each part of
society is getting).  It just shows that, no surprise, income went up over
35 years (yes, 35 years!) and that at least *some* of this income reached
everyone - no matter how unequally.  While we're at it, why not show that
income went up over 100 years?  By that logic we are guaranteed to be a lot
more equal.

The real figures can be found at
http://www.census.gov/hhes/income/histinc/ie3.html  (changes by percentile)
http://www.census.gov/hhes/income/histinc/ie2.html  (changes by gini
coefficient)

Remember that for changes in income share, a small change in percentage
translates to a large - in this case massive - transfer of income.  To put
it succinctly: over this period the U.S. went from being the most equal
developed country in the world, to the most unequal (see OECD).  A proud
heritage thrown away.  Most assumptions about our economy, society and
politics must now need to be rethought - and for the worse.

[BTW, the income figures in some ways understate the larger picture.  For
the wealthy, large amounts have been squirrelled away in tax
shelters\deferrments while the less well off 50% of the country has seen
their pensions (future income) unravel.  I posted on this last week re
Wolff's paper, a follow up to Doug's post.]

Joel Blau writes:
The following article is  cited by Jack Shafer in Slate. Do any PEN-Lers
want to explain what they did to obtain these conclusions?
Joel Blau

EconLog
Squeezed Up
Permanent Link (September 20, 2004)
Edited by Arnold Kling
Arnold Kling



Squeezed Up, September 20, 2004
The Washington Post (possibly more reliable link here) does not use phony
documents, but the thrust of the story, including the headline "More U.S.
families struggle to stay on track" is at variance with the facts that they
present. The key chart, which is included on the jump page in an obscure
way and never discussed in the article, reports on the change in the
distribution of income, using 2003 dollars (I converted the data to tabular
format).Income Distribution Percent of Households

 Range 1967 2003

 $75K and up 8.2 26.1

 $50K - $75K 16.7 18.0

 $35K - $50K 22.3 15.0

 $15K - $35K 31.1 25.0

 under $15K 21.7 15.9


The article emphasizes that the middle has shrunk, from 22.3 percent of households to 15.0 percent. What it does not point out is that the two categories below the middle also have shrunk, from 52.8 percent of households to 40.9 percent. Adjusting for inflation, the percentage of households with incomes over $50,000 has climbed from 24.9 percent in 1967 to 44.1 percent in 2003.

The article's claim that it has become harder to stay in the income range
of $35,000 to $50,000 is correct, if what you mean by "harder to stay" is
that it has become difficult to avoid being squeezed up into a higher
category.

UPDATE: More data and analysis, from Robert Rector.

UPDATE 2: Bruce Bartlett found similar problems with a New York Times story
a few weeks ago.

For Discussion. In what ways do these data overstate or understate the
degree of upward mobility in the economy?



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