Re: Estimating the surplus\Doug's question\Fred's comments

[Paul <paul_@xxxxxxx>]

Jim Devine writes:

> the "productivity of capital" is sloppy writing. It refers to the ratio of
> output to fixed capital equipment (the inverse of some measures of the
> organic composition of capital). But, at least in Marxian lingo, fixed
> capital isn't productive. However, it can be "indirectly productive,"
> i.e., raising the productivity of productive labor.

Thanks a lot :-)  Actually since I was citing the data from Dumenil & Levy
in their RRPE article, I stuck to THEIR term.  It raised my eyebrows as
well, but they are not sloppy people (being French?) and I suspect they are
going somewhere with this so I will let it stand - for now. But it is good
you clarified it.

More seriously, thanks for taking on Mike's question.
Paul