productive powers

["Charles Brown" <CharlesB@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

productive powers
by Devine, James
02 March 2002 00:20 UTC

Reading Hans Ehrbar's excellent commentary on Marx's CAPITAL and related
writings (at http://www.econ.utah.edu/ehrbar/akmk-lt.pdf), I note that
Ehrbar follows GA Cohen's precedent to refer to "productive powers" rather
than "productive forces." Does that change the physics-based interpretation?

^^^^^^^

CB: In physics, force = mass x acceleration ; work = force x distance ; power = work / time. ( I think looking at my Quick Study Acdemic Chart)

If we look at the long run ( homo sapiens sapiens originates 100,000 plus years ago) humans are able to move more and more mass, faster and faster over more and more distance in shorter and shorter periods of time.  The forces ( of production and destruction) become more and more powerful in the technical physics sense of "power".

There also seems no doubt that the power of the forces of production have also increased (perhaps exponentially ) from the European feudalism to capitalism, and from the beginning of capitalism to the current stage of capitalism.

However, this just seems to be a likely true empirical fact. I wouldn't dub it progress , because it is a mixed blessing for the happiness of humanity. But it does seem to be an objective physical fact.