Productive Forces

["Charles Brown" <CharlesB@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Productive Forces


Another thing that might be said about the interpenetration of physics' forces, work, power and energy, and the forces of production of a mode of production is regarding the role of physics' force in the the mode of destruction and war. Between Marx and Engels, Engels did extensive study on the history of force as in war.

The critical issue with force in the physics sense is that it is critical and decisive in the mode of _destruction_. So to the extent that human history develops based on war and the state repressive dominance of one group by another, the group with more force or energy capture used in technology as weapons perpetuates its legacy.





Charles wrote:
> . . . actually the productive _forces_ can be measured to a
> certain extent using the physics concept of "force", in that
> there is at least in the period from European feudalism to
> capitalism a leap in the amount of energy capture and ability to
> do "work" ( in the physics sense of work = force x distance) with
> technology .

 Eric Nilsson
I think I disagree about being able to use "force"--as defined by
physics--to quantify the amount of the productive forces.

But Charles' point raises an idea I've not thought of before--which likely
has been well-discussed by those more knowledgeable than me: to what extent
did Karl M. get his ideas about productive forces from the ideas of physics
then current in Europe? The notion of "force" (as used in physics) certainly
existed in Europe by the early 1700s. I guess the equations of mv or mv^2
also existed. Was Karl M. aware of such things and, if so, did it play a
part in the development of his theory of history?

Eric

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CB: He was certainly aware of these physics basics, but I am sure he did not
reduce his "productive forces" to physical forces. Marx was not a vulgar
Marxist. However, I think his concept of productive forces includes and
transcends the concepts in physics. Don't forget. Physics has "work" too.