Productive Forces

["Charles Brown" <CharlesB@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

 Productive Forces
by Eric Nilsson
28 February 2002 20:39 UTC

Charles wrote:
> . . . actually the productive _forces_ can be measured to a
> certain extent using the physics concept of "force", in that
> there is at least in the period from European feudalism to
> capitalism a leap in the amount of energy capture and ability to
> do "work" ( in the physics sense of work = force x distance) with
> technology .

I think I disagree about being able to use "force"--as defined by
physics--to quantify the amount of the productive forces.

But Charles' point raises an idea I've not thought of before--which likely
has been well-discussed by those more knowledgeable than me: to what extent
did Karl M. get his ideas about productive forces from the ideas of physics
then current in Europe? The notion of "force" (as used in physics) certainly
existed in Europe by the early 1700s. I guess the equations of mv or mv^2
also existed. Was Karl M. aware of such things and, if so, did it play a
part in the development of his theory of history?

Eric

&&&&&&&&&

CB: He was certainly aware of these physics basics, but I am sure he did not reduce his "productive forces" to physical forces. Marx was not a vulgar Marxist. However, I think his concept of productive forces includes and transcends the concepts in physics. Don't forget. Physics has "work" too.
.