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Re: S. Africa/mode of prod. debate
Mark says:
Yoshie Furuhashi:
With regard to the early days of modern colonialism (when capitalist
relations were in the process of emergence), it's possible to speak
of two or more modes of production confronting one another
I don't see any meaningful sense in which this is true. What
'pre-capitalist' m of p or social formation *effectively* or *meaningfully*
EVER confronted capitalist states? I can't think of one. There was no
confrontation of historical equals, there was a total world historical
process.
Wasn't it your contention -- as well as Jim Blaut's, etc. -- that as
far as technology, seed/yield ratio, quality of textile production,
etc. were concerned, at the moment of the New World conquest,
"Europeans" & "non-Europeans" were not that different, staggering
differences in living standards today being products of capitalism &
imperialism? Or were they already vastly unequal then, in the same
way that core & periphery are today?
Your entire conception of the 'emergence' of capitalism into a
non-capitalist or precapitalist (precapitalist, in some teleological sense?)
is entirely post hoc reasoning. What Louis and I and others are asserting
and attempting to prove both in theory and empirically, is that capitalism
was a product of a total, pre-existent world system.
Was there a world system that encompassed the entire world -- as
opposed to states, empires, & networks of trade relations -- before
the rise of capitalism? Columbus dreamed of sailing to Japan, to be
sure, but he never got there.
Yoshie
- Thread context:
- Re: Re: S. Africa/mode of prod. debate, (continued)
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