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Re: S. Africa/mode of prod. debate



Sorry if this repeats what others have said, I've been out of town and haven't
read everything.

An important point in the debates in Marxist anthropology and the
"articulation
of modes of production" debates regards a tension between the analysis of
precapitalist modes of production, usually based on Marx's _Formen_ in the
_Grundrisse_, and the notion of 'peripheral capitalism', where
social formations
are analyzed as on the surface appearing to maintain certain aspects of
precapitalist forms, but actually functioning as part of the larger capitalist
mode.

It would be hard to argue, I think, that what was going in a South African
bantustan represents a precapitalist mode--an analysis of
colonialist capitalism
intentionally maintaining pockets of subsistence activity to support a migrant
labor system based on superexploitation (wages below subsistence), and to
control the population (at the same time allowing some monetization--through
taxation--and commoditization to develop a market for some goods)--would seem
more appropriate.  The role of the bantustan in the reproduction of the larger
colonialist capitalism appears as fundamental.  But there are other
cases where
capitalist development was less severe and an analysis of articulation of a
precapitalist mode or modes--Germanic or domestic modes, e.g.--with
colonialist
and global capitalism would be more appropriate.

What determines whether an analysis of peripheral capitalism or a
precapitalist
mode in articulation with colonialist capitalism is more appropriate?  (Also,
can we speak of a 'peripheral capitalist' or 'peripheral colonial capitalist'
*mode of production*?).  The late Peter Rigby, discussing these issues, wrote:

"The basic issue around which all these questions revolve is this: does the
application of the concept of the Germanic (or other) mode of production...
really illuminate and lead to explanation not only of their *form*,
but also of
their actual and potential *transformation*?"
(_Persistent Pastoralists_, Zed Press, 1985).  Or, on the other hand, does the
application of the concept of a 'peripheral capitalist' mode...
answer the same
question?

mat

It's not a matter of typology but a question of historical transformation. Everyone here agrees that the area that came to be South Africa wasn't always capitalist; again, everyone here agrees that South Africa is now capitalist. The politically relevant questions are (A) when & how it became capitalist; (B) what changes within it have occurred since it became capitalist; (C) how A & B have impacted its relation to the rest of the world, & vice versa; & (D) what political implications A, B, & C have for socialists. After all, we as Marxists are in the business of social change, so we want to understand what changes, major & minor, have happened; what underlying mechanisms have given rise to the observable changes; what changes must be made to achieve social emancipation; what prospect for social emancipation the present offers; and so on.

Yoshie




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