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Re: Max Weber's Genteel Racism (was Re: weber)
>But why enclosure? Why travel abroad and steal people? Why did it
occur to people to enclose common land for the first time? Why didn't
they think of it before?
Doug
Enclosing land is utterly inconsequential in the grand scheme of things.
Spain enclosed land all through the 15th and 16th century but did not "take
off". I just finished reading Adolfo Gilly's splendid history of the
Mexican revolution 1910-1920. The original Zapatista movement was sparked
by enclosures in Morelos, when sugar producing haciendas were created at
the expense of communal land deeded to Indians in the 17th century. While
Mexico was enclosing land, Japan at the very same moment was reinforcing
feudal property relations in the countryside so as to hasten capital
accumulation for the growth of native manufacturing. Japan took off because
it was protected from colonialism. England took off because it became
colonialist. Mexico failed to take off because it was a victim of
neocolonialism. Period. Case close. Sentence: ten years with time off for
good behavior.
Louis Proyect
Marxism mailing list: http://www.marxmail.org
Enclosure mattered the most at the _origin_ of capitalism, for the
_creation_ of the drive toward M-C-M'. In the process of its
subsequent development, as more & more areas became incorporated into
the capitalist world market, as Japan eventually was, however, the
ruling classes who were capitalist late-comers could use strategies
different from English landlords. Nevertheless, primitive
accumulation -- the separation of direct producers from their means
of production (mainly land, but also customary rights, exclusionary
powers of guilds, etc.) & the destruction of private properties based
upon petty commodity production (e.g., writers) -- continues to this
day. Hence, for instance, the EZLN -- a response to primitive
accumulation.
Yoshie
- Thread context:
- Re: Re: Re: Max Weber's Genteel Racism (was Re: weber), (continued)
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