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[PEN-L:11430] Re: Re: [Fwd: Fw: EH.R: Kondratieff Cycles]



Charles Brown wrote:

Charles: Some questions for the answers:

Why is the whole region of East Asia looked at to determine whether
there is a recession ?  Maybe there was a recession in Indonesia but
not one in China. Isn't one conventional defiintion something like
negative growth for four or five straight quarters in one country ?
Why is the period of measure a decade ?

It was Frank's choice, not mine. He claimed a decade-long world depression. There's no evidence for that. The conventional definition is two consecutive quarters of real decline in GDP in one country.

Over the history of recording recession/depresions aren't some of
them in individual countries and some world or regional ? One
commentator says the first crisis of overproduction broke out in
Britain in 1825. The 1847-48 crisis which embraced the U.S. and some
European countries was the first world or regional crisis. Aren't
crises of different geographical reaches and for different lengths
,including a year or so, in length ?  If the time period is
stretched long enough and an average taken , most crises can be
averaged away. This is especially so if the time period is stretched
to a decade. Even the Great Depression of `1929 to 1933 might be
averaged away if the decade is 1923 to 1933 ?

Yes, you're right. Ask Andre Gunder Frank why he chose to make the period a decade.

Can China, with a very mixed economy, be considered on a full
capitalist business cycle ? Can its growth be credited to the world
capitalist system ?

They've certainly become at least partly capitalist, have opened partly to foreign investment, and depend heavily on exports for growth.

Doug

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