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Re: [OPE-L] fully automated economy and capitalism



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Hi Jerry,

In Paul C's thought experiment, one can hypothesize that a quantity
analogous to labour content emerges as the basis of economic value.

If there is a scarce and universal quantity that constrains production
and the feasible consumption pattern --- and if the economy works with
some degree of efficiency --- then this quantity will emerge as a
regulating force on the prices of commodities.

//Dave Z


on 2007-11-28 15:14 GERALD LEVY wrote:

Hi Paul C:



    How are you defining 'profit' and the 'rate of profit' below?



    If we take the  formula s/c+v  to be the rate of profit, in a

    fully automated economy v = 0 and this implies that s =

    0 unless you think that c can create surplus value.



    I suppose one could define 'surplus' (NB: as distinct from

    'surplus value') in a different way,  such that it could exist in

    your fully automated society.  But, it would be difficult

    because in pre-capitalist (or post-capitalist) societies a surplus

    refers to an amount of the total product produced beyond the

    necessary reproductive requirements  of the direct producers.

    But,   there are no direct producers in a fully automated society

    unless you take the robots to be the 'producers'.   [If so, then

    the (non-labor) costs associated with maintaining and

    reproducing the robots could be seen as 'socially necessary'

    and a pre-requisite for the reproduction of the system.]



    Who would be consuming the output, you ask? Well,

    I guess that would be the human (or non-human) parasites

    who live off of the product produced by the robots,

    right?



    What any of this has to do with real economies is unclear

    to me. I don't think such an abstract, ahistorical model  has

    *anything* meaningful to say about capitalism.



    In solidarity, Jerry



    ------------------------------------------------------------







    I agree that without wage labour you could not speak of capitalism
    in the normal sense, but

    That does not follow that all prices would be zero, since the
    firms might still be

    Aiming to maximise profit.



    More unclear would be who or what was consuming the output?



    One could assume all was reinvested and the rate of profit would
    then the the rate of growth as analyzed by von Neumann






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