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Re: [OPE-L] questions on the interpretation of labour values
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Title: Re: [OPE-L] questions on the interpretation of
labour valu
Do you want a proof? Please, don't go yet to your kitchen and don't
cook:
simply tell the physical elements you have in it to produce for you
whatever
you want, and let me see the results. Please feel free to tell them to
use
any element that can enter _indirectly_ in whatever you want they cook
for
you.
Given the all male nature of this list and the sexual division of
labor, I wouldn't be surprised if this proof fails.
I have tried to suggest a few times on this list that labor is
active in a way that raw materials, machines and draught animals are
not. If Marx cannot single out living or active social labor time,
then his theory of value would collapse. The attempt to single out
living labor in this way is dismissed as humanist bias by some as if
the organization of social relations of living labor as a nature
imposed necessity was humanist rather than materialist through
and through.
Raw materials, machines, draught animals do not even exist as
factors of production unless living social labor time has been
allocated in such a quantitative and qualitative way to make use of
them as such. And if commodity price did not remain a function of
value, a general commodity society could not allocate its labor
time so as to make use of the inactive factors of production to
reproduce itself.
That price remains a function of value is also underlined in
empirical (as opposed to simply logical) terms by the ability of the
labor theory of value to account for changes in exchange ratios over
time, that is as a dynamic theory not as a theory of the unreal world
of fixed technical conditions. Even a critic as Meghnad Desai concedes
that the labor theory of value does remarkably well as a dynamic
theory.
Marx was interested in the ideological reasons why this necessary
functional dependence of price upon value in a generalized commodity
society was not obvious and commonly accepted, and his primary answer
was not subjective class bias (that is, Aristotle's slave
owning biases or the promotion of neoclassical theory over the labor
theory of value as bourgeois propaganda, though see here Guy Routh's
book) but the objectively illusory nature of the market itself, as
Paolo Cipolla on this list, John Torrance, Derek Sayer and others have
argued.
The point is that Marx did not make his mark in proving the labor
theory of value but in explaining the sources of resistance to it (and
of course the dynamic macro economic consequences of it) . We would be
mislead if we thought that the most important reason for rejection of
the labor theory of value is the transformation problem which only
provides the scientistic language to reject a theory which conflicts
with some market phenomena and, and is dangerous politically. That is,
the labor theory of value is in fact rejected for extra scientific
reasons (it runs against some common sense, and it's politically
dangerous), but that rejection masks itself in the scientistic
language of linear production theory and tough guy theatrics.
At any rate, I think Marx's argument for the labor theory of
value is logical deduction from obvious premises in much the same way
as was Darwin's logical hypothesis of natural selection, as first
conceived on the Beagle. This is obvious in the famous letter to
Kugelmann.
Rakesh
ps Diego, still would like to hear your views on whether we
should historical costs in the denominator of the profit rate and the
replacement costs of constant capital in the numerator.
Cheers,
Diego
- Thread context:
- Re: [OPE-L] questions on the interpretation of labour values, (continued)
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