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Hi Ajit
In any case, If you put rate of profit equal to zero, then Sraffa's prices (dated labor or simultaneous equations alike) will be exactly equal to Marx's labor values and there will be a commodity residue.
As an aside, for historical accuracy we should really write "Marxian" labour values, because Marx never once wrote down the standard formula for labour values found in static equilibrium critiques of his theory.
How do you calculate labor values? Let's say it takes 5 units of corn plus 5 hours of labor to produce 1 unit of iron. The labor value of iron will be 5 hours of labor plus you go to the corn sector and see how much of direct labor and the constant capital elements for corn is taken to produce 5 units of corn. You add this live labor to your 5 hours and then go into the sectors of constant capital used in production of corn. Collect the live labor needed to produce the amount of constant capital elements used in producing 5 units of corn. Add those live labors to your collection of labor hours and then again go in to the sectors that produced the constant capital elements of the constant capital elements of corn and collect the live labor elements from there and add them to your labor hour collection. This way you keep going back and back and the amount of constant capital elements keep becoming smaller and smaller. When they become so small as to be negligible,i.e; their limit tends to zero, then your live labor hour collection gives you exactly the same measure of labor value as simultaneous equations would.
My only point is that this cannot be a real historical process, but only a hypothetical one. The 'dates' are not real dates, the 'successive periods of production' did not actually occur.
If my memory serves me right, Morishima's method becomes relevant in joint production cases--as you must know, in cases of joint production you cannot always determine labor-value of a commodity. Cheers,
Morishima introduces labour values as employment multipliers before he discusses joint production. In the input-output literature, deriving from Leontief, the standard formula for labour values (which as you note is equivalent to setting r=0 and dividing by w in Sraffa's dated representation) is used to rank sectors according to how much additional total direct and indirect employment an expansion of that sector may engender. No mention is normally made of Marx's theory of value. Input-output theorists also make use of "total employment multipliers" which augment the technical matrix by household consumption, which they interpret to include the "induced" effects of sector expansion due to additional direct and indirect household consumption.
I am wondering why the "dated" interpretation of the standard formula for labour values is preferred over the "employment multiplier" interpretation, and what are the relations between them.
Thanks, -Ian.
- Re: [OPE-L] The roots of value theory, (continued)
- Re: [OPE-L] The roots of value theory, Jerry Levy Sun 25 Feb 2007, 15:09 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, ope-admin Wed 21 Feb 2007, 14:20 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, Ian Wright Thu 22 Feb 2007, 17:22 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, ajit sinha Thu 22 Feb 2007, 18:50 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, Ian Wright Mon 26 Feb 2007, 17:16 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, ajit sinha Mon 26 Feb 2007, 21:24 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, Diego Guerrero Tue 27 Feb 2007, 22:31 GMT
- Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values, Philip Dunn Thu 22 Feb 2007, 19:02 GMT
- [OPE-L] Schumpeter on the role of history in theorising, Jurriaan Bendien Tue 06 Feb 2007, 15:55 GMT