OPE-L
mailing list archive

Other Periods  | Other mailing lists  | Search  ]

Date:  [ Previous  | Next  ]      Thread:  [ Previous  | Next  ]      Index:  [ Author  | Date  | Thread  ]

IMPORTANT: If you cite this message, OPE-L policy requires you not to reveal the identity of the author.

Re: [OPE-L] question on the interpretation of labour values



You may cite this message only if you do not disclose who wrote it.


Hi Ajit

In any case, If you put rate of profit equal to zero, then
Sraffa's prices (dated labor or simultaneous equations
alike) will be exactly equal to Marx's labor values
and there will be a commodity residue.

As an aside, for historical accuracy we should really write "Marxian" labour values, because Marx never once wrote down the standard formula for labour values found in static equilibrium critiques of his theory.

How do you
calculate labor values? Let's say it takes 5 units of
corn plus 5 hours of labor to produce 1 unit of iron.
The labor value of iron will be 5 hours of labor plus
you go to the corn sector and see how much of direct
labor and the constant capital elements for corn is
taken to produce 5 units of corn. You add this live
labor to your 5 hours and then go into the sectors of
constant capital used in production of corn. Collect
the live labor needed to produce the amount of
constant capital elements used in producing 5 units of
corn. Add those live labors to your collection of
labor hours and then again go in to the sectors that
produced the constant capital elements of the constant
capital elements of corn and collect the live labor
elements from there and add them to your labor hour
collection. This way you keep going back and back and
the amount of constant capital elements keep becoming
smaller and smaller. When they become so small as to
be negligible,i.e; their limit tends to zero, then
your live labor hour collection gives you exactly the
same measure of labor value as simultaneous equations
would.

My only point is that this cannot be a real historical process, but only a hypothetical one. The 'dates' are not real dates, the 'successive periods of production' did not actually occur.

If my memory serves me right, Morishima's
method becomes relevant in joint production cases--as
you must know, in cases of joint production you cannot
always determine labor-value of a commodity. Cheers,

Morishima introduces labour values as employment multipliers before he discusses joint production. In the input-output literature, deriving from Leontief, the standard formula for labour values (which as you note is equivalent to setting r=0 and dividing by w in Sraffa's dated representation) is used to rank sectors according to how much additional total direct and indirect employment an expansion of that sector may engender. No mention is normally made of Marx's theory of value. Input-output theorists also make use of "total employment multipliers" which augment the technical matrix by household consumption, which they interpret to include the "induced" effects of sector expansion due to additional direct and indirect household consumption.

I am wondering why the "dated" interpretation of the standard formula
for labour values is preferred over the "employment multiplier"
interpretation, and what are the relations between them.

Thanks,
-Ian.



Other Periods  | Other mailing lists  | Search  ]