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Gerry What I want to ask, though, is: *how do you define a
'long time'?* Clearly, your prediction of a crash is related to the
assertion that "disequilibrium can not remain for a long
time." So, how long _in years_ is a long-time (approximations are OK, but I
really think this question has to be answered, since
otherwise one could say 3, 5, 10, 20, 50, or 100, etc. years and
hence the prediction becomes meaningless.) I think this is a general question which Marxians
should be able to answer: how do we define long-run?; is
our definition different than that used in mainstream economic
theory? (I think it is.) ------------- To answer with another question: How many years would it take at the
current rate of deficit for the entire fixed capital stock of the hands of overseas investors? Would this point not act as a limit? > [...] there are many different ways of
adjustment: a crash, or > several recessions in few years, or stagnation
during several > years, as in Well, yes, but there is quite a difference between
predicting a a) crash; b) recessions; c) multi-year period of stagnation. If the prediction is going to be meaningful, I think
that one has to be more specific. *What determines whether a), b) or c) will occur?* *What determines whether the 'adjustment' will occur
this year, next year, 5 years from now, 10 years from now, 20
years from now, etc.?*
> mean a great crisis can not happen again. Indeed. Neither does it necessarily mean
that a "great crisis" will occur in the foreseeable future. There is another issue as well: *even if* there is a
crash/recession/ stagnation, what will be the cause? For
instance, the reasons offered by Loren Goldner or the "prudent bear"
are quite different -- it seems to me -- from the reasons offered by Anwar Shaikh,
Dimitri Papadimitriou, Claudio do Fragile is the US Economy" (can be downloaded at http://homepage.newschool.edu/~AShaikh/ ). In solidarity, Jerry |
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