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Re: [OPE-L] basics vs. non-basics and financial services



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Paul, I think that you are wrong. May be your interpretation of reproduction is biased by the fact that you usually work with models of economies that are always growing at the maximum rates of growth, and therefore there is no place for increasing accumulation using money coming from outside the capitalist sector or from capitalists who were not yet investing all his surplus value? I donât know.



But suppose a capitalist who consume all his surplus value: his production of value amounts to 24: 12 c + 6 v + 6 s, and he consumes all his s in this way: 3 units of normal goods (Sg), 1 luxury good (Sl), and 2 units of domestic services (servants): Sd. We can see this in Table 1:



Table 1



     C = 12




V = 6


Sg = 3


Sl= 1


Sd = 2




In terms of use value, production is 24, ie 12 means of production, and 12 means of consumption = 6 normal means of consumption for workers plus 3 for himself plus 1 luxury means of consumption, and 2 means of consumption for servants. We have it in Table 2:




Table 2



     MP = 12


MCg = 6 + 3


MCl = 1


MCg = 2




But if he puts his servants to work in a firm of luxuries (that, according to you, would be a firm where labour is unproductive) he will âenrichâ himself instead of âimpoverishingâ himself (using approximate words from Smith). Of course he will need to invest in new means of production and combine them with the same work he was paying at home and now pays inside the firm as productive labour. Those workers will produce now new surplus value for him and of course new value added and new total value. Total value produced is now 26,67 instead of 24, and value added 13,33 instead of 12. Note that the rate of surplus value and the value composition of capital do not change.




In terms of value he detours the 2 units of money that he consumed before as revenue for his servants to buy now means of production for 1,33 units and capital variable for 0,67 (wages are the same, but they were not capital before but revenue), and then obtain 0,67 of additional surplus value. See Table 3: his surplus value is now 6,77 = the sum of 6 (as before) plus 0,67 coming form his new productive workers.



Table 3



     C = 12




V = 6


Sg = 2,33




Sl = 3


Sk=

     1,33

     âC = 1,33
    âV = 0,67




Of course, that means that the material composition of production has changed. We have now more means of production (14,67), and the same means of consumption (12). But the composition of the means of consumption has changed at its turn: we have now 3 units of luxuries and just 2,33 of normal goods consumed by the capitalist; the rest (6,77) are of course consumed by workers. See Table 4:




Table 4



     MP = 13,33 + 1,33






MCg = 6,67 + 2,33


MCl = 3






So the conclusion is clear. To put servants to work in a productive firm, even if that firm produces luxuries, amounts to the capitalist to expand the ground for accumulation (of both, value and surplus value on the one hand, and means of production on the other hand). Of course all luxuries are âcontingentâ in my own terms, but require labour that is absolutely productive if the workers are employed in a capitalist firm instead of at home.




And note finally that the luxuries referred to could even be the same âdomestic servicesâ as before, ie of the same material nature that those workers performed at home before.



PS. I add a word file because of tables' deformation.




----- Original Message ----- From: "Paul Cockshott" <wpc@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
To: <OPE-L@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Tuesday, October 04, 2005 11:19 AM
Subject: Re: [OPE-L] basics vs. non-basics and financial services



Diego Guerrero wrote:
Paul, you say: "The mass of surplus value can not

be altered by activities in the 3rd sector producting luxuries etc."


Suppose a system producing 10 iron, 10 corn and 100 luxuries, with 10, 10
and 100 workers respectively. As distribution can be any distribution, this
would be possible. Do you mean that wages and profits in this third sector
come from the two former? I don't think so. Another, very different thing,
would be if this third sector were public administration. Then productivity
in the two productive sectors would have to be much higher that in the
other
sector in order for them to be able to pay taxes and redistribute such a
quantity of surplus value.


In my opinion, in the first case we have new areas for accumulation of
capital and production of new surplus value. In the second case we would
have new areas outside value production that would reduce the potential of
accumulation of capital.


Diego
What I mean is that the third sector

1. Can not produce relative surplus value
2. Can produce some absolute surplus value but, and this is crucial
3. This absolute surplus value can not be accumulated


1. The luxury sector can not produce relative surplus value since to produce relative surplus value its output would have to enter directly or indirectly into the real wage.

2. It could produce absolute surplus value, so its employees
   can be exploited by being forced to work beyond the time
   necessary to reproduce the value of their wages, but in
   this they are no different from butlers and the other feudal
   retainers that Smith stigmatised as unproductive. These too
   may have to work long hours.

3. Why can the surplus value produced in this sector not be
   accumulated?

   Because of its material form.

   Assume depts I, and II remain unchanged, but that working hours
   increase in dept III. This increase in working hours will result
   in a more valuable product in dept III, but this surplus comes
   in the material form of luxuries and services which can not be
   accumulated as constant capital. Its output must thus be unproductively
   consumed by the capitalist class.

Thus the third sector is not what you describe as "new areas for accumulation of
capital and production of new surplus value".


It is what it always was, a drain on the process of accumulation and
thus on capitalist economic progress. This is the reason why Smith
insists on productive labour producing vendible commodities that
persist through time.

This is the same reason why the production of weapons is unproductive,
whether this takes place in state factories or private factories.
Workers engaged in the production of nuclear missiles are
producing means of *destruction* not means of *production* and
as such can not contribute directly or indirectly to the
accumulation of the means of production.

If we loose sight of the underlying material relationships of
production and focus only on legal superficialities we get led
astray by the 'illusions of competition'.

Given your figures for labour inputs we have

Let us now look at your example

      labour  wages   constant   gross value
                      capital    output
I     10      1        10         20
II    10      1        2          12
III  100      10       8          108

Sales by dept I
    10 within the department
    2  to dept II
    8  to dept III

Sales by dept II
1 to workers in dept I, 1 to workers in dept II, 10 to workers in dept III


Sales by dept III
    9 to capitalists in dept I
    9 to capitalist in dept II
    90 consumed by themselves

Now suppose that hours of work in III are raised 10%, we get
      labour  wages   constant   gross value
                      capital    output
I     10      1        10         20
II    10      1        2          12
III  110      10       8          118

Sales by dept I - unchanged

Sales by dept II - unchanged

Sales by dept III
    9 to capitalists in dept I
    9 to capitalist in dept II
    100 consumed by themselves

So the net effect can only be to increase the personal consumption of
one section of the capitalist class - that section whose workers make
luxuries. The effect therefore is identical to what would have
occurred if they made their personal servants work longer hours.



--
Paul Cockshott
Dept Computing Science
University of Glasgow



0141 330 3125

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