[OPE-L] the rate of surplus value in Puerto Rico?

[Gerald_A_Levy@xxxxxxx]

Last year we had a discussion on the subject of "s/v & c/v:
macroeconomic categories only?".  In that thread Simon and Cyrus
claimed that one can not calculate the rate of surplus value for a
firm or an industry.  Rather, they argued, it is a rate which expresses
an aggregate or macro relationship.  Yet the members who took this
position thought that s/v could be empirically calculated for an individual
national economy.

This leads me to the question:  is it legitimate -- from your
perspectives --
to calculate the rate of surplus value in Puerto Rico?

Recall that Edward N. Wolff attempted such an empirical estimation
in the 1970s.

Yet, isn't Puerto Rico a *colony* of the USA?   How is it possible to
calculate the rate of surplus value of a colony independently of
a calculation of the rate of surplus value in the imperial nation?

If we attempt such a calculation anyway, don't we obscure the transfer
of surplus value in the form of surplus profits from the colony?

In solidarity, Jerry