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Paul C wrote: 1. A contribution due to higher exploitation in that sector 2. A contribution due to sales of the product at a price above its value. It is relatively easy, using i/o tables, to separate out these two factors. ------------------------ If it is possible to show with an "embodied labor" perspective and empirical data (in this case, from input-output tables) sectoral rates of exploitation, the extent to which commodities are sold above or below their value, and the transfers of surplus value among firms, then this might be claimed as a significant advantage of that (i.e. "embodied labor") perspective. Or, is it? In solidarity, Jerry
- Re: (OPE-L) Re: s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?, Cyrus Bina Sun 01 Feb 2004, 00:14 GMT
- (OPE-L) Re: s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?, gerald_a_levy Sun 01 Feb 2004, 13:55 GMT
- Re: (OPE-L) Re: s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?, Rakesh Bhandari Tue 03 Feb 2004, 01:28 GMT
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- Re: (OPE-L) Re: s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?, Paul Cockshott Wed 04 Feb 2004, 16:27 GMT
- (OPE-L) Re: s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?, gerald_a_levy Fri 06 Feb 2004, 14:09 GMT