(OPE-L) transfers of surplus value among capitalists

[gerald_a_levy <gerald_a_levy@xxxxxxx>]

On second thought, some of my post from  Sunday, February 1,
on "s/v & c/v: macroeconomic categories only?" was confused.
So, let me try again,  expressing an issue as a question:

*  For those who hold that there is one rate of surplus value and
that it is a macroeconomic rate,  how do you show -- and
empirically calculate -- the transfers of value and surplus value
among capitalist firms both within an industry and in different
branches of production?  (This is a simplified posing of the
question since there is _also_ the transfer of surplus value to
non-industrial capitalists and to land owners. The transfers of
surplus value to the state doesn't shouldn't pose a measurement
problem)

If it is not possible to show these transfers of surplus value,
then why isn't -- or is it? --  merely a metaphor?

I address the above to anyone who wants to answer it.

In solidarity, Jerry