(OPE-L) Re: Unproductive Labour and the Two Department Model

[gerald_a_levy <gerald_a_levy@xxxxxxx>]

Phil wrote:

> Whose commodity capital is realised when I buy a bottle of Johnny
> Walker at the liquor store?
> In general this is complicated.  Let me make some simplifying
> assumptions to clarify the issue.  First, if the shop is unable to
> sell the bottle it can be returned to the manufacturer.  Second, the
> price is controlled by the manufacturer.  Third, when the customer
> pays $10, $8 is remitted immediately to the manufacturer and $2 is
> the shop's sales revenue for retailing services.

Without these assumptions, though,  the commodity capital of Johnny
Walker is realized when the whiskey is sold to the retailer.  When
the retailer then sells the whiskey to final consumers,  the revenues
received are kept by the retailer and only go back to the Johnny
Walker to buy more stock.

> Under these
> conditions the merchandise forms no part of the constant or the
> commodity capital of the shop.

Hold on... is it (subject to the assumptions you made) commodity
capital _or_ constant capital?

I'm still not getting why, from your perspective,  the output of
Johnny Walker  should be counted as part of Department I.
Unless the whiskey is a joint product used to provide energy
or lubrication for constant fixed capital (and hence becomes
constant circulating capital),  isn't it means of consumption?

In solidarity, Jerry