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Did Marx's assumption in VPP that money wage struggles could be successful in raising the real wage depend in any way on his assumption of a commodity theory of money? I think Prabhat Patnaik suggests that his Weston critique did depend on this assumption. But I am not clear why he says so. Do others agree? Rakesh
- Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, Paul Cockshott Fri 07 Nov 2003, 10:23 GMT
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- Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, michael a. lebowitz Sat 08 Nov 2003, 23:12 GMT
- (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, gerald_a_levy Sun 09 Nov 2003, 13:47 GMT
- Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, ajit sinha Mon 10 Nov 2003, 10:36 GMT
- Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, Rakesh Bhandari Mon 10 Nov 2003, 11:56 GMT
- Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, Rakesh Bhandari Mon 10 Nov 2003, 12:05 GMT
- (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, gerald_a_levy Mon 10 Nov 2003, 13:38 GMT
- Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, Rakesh Bhandari Tue 11 Nov 2003, 01:03 GMT
- (OPE-L) Re: indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value, gerald_a_levy Tue 11 Nov 2003, 13:49 GMT