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Re: (OPE-L) indirect labor, the real wage, and the production of surplus value



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Did Marx's assumption in VPP that money wage struggles could be
successful in raising the real wage depend in any way on his
assumption of a commodity theory of money? I think Prabhat Patnaik
suggests that his Weston critique did depend on this assumption. But
I am not clear why he says so. Do others agree?
Rakesh



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