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Phil and Riccardo: thanks for your answers. I'll change the numbers a bit to get at the question I originally intended. Here's the modified question (all other conditions previously stated remaining the same): c) In the first firm (A) there are less workers (La) because output/worker/hr. is greater but La receive higher wages. In the second firm (B) there are more workers (Lb>La) and the output/worker/hr is lower but these workers (Lb) are paid lower wages than the other group (La). Suppose further that output/worker/hr is 50% greater in A than in B and that wages for La are 50% greater than those received by Lb. (Also: Assume, to avoid further pedantic responses, wages for Lb are greater than 0.) QUESTION: * Which is the more exploited -- La or Lb? In solidarity, Jerry
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