Re: (OPE-L) measuring exploitation

[Philip Dunn <pscumnud@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Hi Jerry

This is an easy one.  Since wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by
La, Lb get zero wages and are infinitely exploited.

Yours pedantically

Phil


Quoting gerald_a_levy <gerald_a_levy@xxxxxxx>:

> A hypothetical question:
>
> a)  Suppose there are two firms in the same
> branch of production but these two firms are in different
> regions (or countries).
>
> b) Suppose that the workers in those 2 firms work the same
> working hours,  work to the same degree of labor intensity,
> have the same skills,  and that the total quantity of output
> produced in each firm is the same.  Assume that there is a
> uniform price for a unit of output.
>
> c)  In the first firm (A)  there are less workers (La) because
> output/worker/hr. is greater  but  La receive higher wages.
> In the second firm (B) there are more workers (Lb>La) and
> the output/worker/hr is lower but these workers (Lb) are
> paid lower wages than the other group (La).  Suppose further
> that output/worker/hr is 100% greater in A than in B and that
> wages for Lb are 100% lower than those received by La.
>
> QUESTION:
>
> * Which is the more exploited --   La or Lb?
>
> In solidarity, Jerry
>
>
>


Philip Dunn