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How 'simple' is 'simple average labour'?
Consider
the following -- especially the part that I
have
capitalized:
------------------------------
"But the value of a commodity represents
human
labour pure and simple, the expenditure of
human
labour in general. And just as, in civil society,
a
general or a banker plays a great part but man
as
such plays a very mean part, so, here too, the
same
is true of human labour. It is the expenditure
of
simple labour-power, i.e. of the
labour-power
possessed in his bodily organism by every
ordinary
man, on the average, without being developed
in
any special way. *Simple average labour*, it
is true,
VARIES IN CHARACTER IN DIFFERENT
COUNTRIES AND AT DIFFERENT CULTURAL
EPOCHS, BUT IN ANY PARTICULAR SOCIETY
IT IS GIVEN" (Marx, *Capital*, Vol. 1, Penguin
ed., p. 135, capitalization added for
emphasis).
-----------------------------
One might infer from the above that for
*STATIC
ANALYSIS OF A GIVEN SOCIETY*, Marx is
saying that it is
legitimate to consider 'simple
average labour' as GIVEN.
This raises more questions than it answers,
though:
1) Is 'simple average labour' then to be
understood
as SPECIFIC to a particular society? This
would
create problems for the
understanding and
comparison of value in DIFFERENT societies, i.e.
INTERNATIONALLY. *Even if* we, however,
understand a "particular society" in a
global
sense as the capitalist society in existence in
the
world at a specific moment in time, that does
not
resolve the next problem. But, before moving
on,
I will ask you:
*Should we consider a "particular society" to be
the society in existence within a given nation or
the world-wide capitalist society in existence?*
2) Marx clearly thinks that it is legitimate
for
STATIC analysis to understand simple
labour
as given. Should we also consider
simple
labour as given for DYNAMIC ANALYSIS?
It would seem that Marx's answer, because
he
recognizes that simple labour varies in
character
"at different cultural epochs", would be:
"NO"!
Or, at least, it would suggest that if
one's
dynamic analysis is of a sufficiently long
period
that it *extends into different cultural
epochs*,
then 'simple labour' can no longer be taken
for
granted as being given.
It would seem, then, that 'simple labour' is
no
longer simple under capitalism over a long
historical
period.
* What, then, can cause 'simple average labour'
to
change from one epoch of capitalism to
another?
Marx doesn't answer the above question so
here
are my preliminary thoughts:
a) a generalization of certain types of
knowledge
by workers that capitalists, and society in
general,
come to expect as normal and average. The
generalization of *literacy* might be thought of in
this manner. This generalization of literacy
has
by no means proceeded rapidly or
evenly
internationally, but
we can observe a substantial
change from mid-19th to mid-20th
Centuries.
b) long-term changes in diet, nutrition, and
health
that affect not only
life expectancy but also
arguably the ability to create value. In
general,
one might for instance expect that if workers
are
healthier then they are more capable of
working
intensively. Conversely, some dietary
changes
that are *unhealthy* for workers might have
the
same consequence (e.g. increases
in sugar and
caffeine consumption). Thus, this might over the
very long-term
affect SNLT. Of course, this is a
*very* uneven process internationally but
physical capabilities (in some societies, including
average height) have changed for workers over a
*very* long period.
c) Alongside the increase in women's
employment
in the mid- to late 20th Century (and the
modern
feminist movement), there have been cultural
changes that have promoted exercise and strength-
building for women. To the extent that this raises
the average physical ability of workers over the
long-term it could be seen as bringing about a
change in simple average labour.
d) The spread of certain basic technologies
related
to the health of the working class might be
seen
as changing simple average labour over the
very
long term. E.g. how many millions of
workers
in the 19th Century needed, but were unable to
obtain (i.e. afford), eyeglasses to be able
to see
properly? Yet,
now this has changed and it is
normally the case
world-wide that workers who
need eyeglasses can
be able to obtain them.
Hasn't this then raised the magnitude of value that
is created by this 'simple' labour since there has
now been a change in the capabilities of the
'average' labourer?
The above are *only examples* of how simple
labour can change over the course of
capitalist
history. Other examples are thus
possible.
* Do you agree that the above examples could
be
seen as constituting a change in simple average
labour?
* Can you think of any other historical examples of
how simple average labour has changed in
capitalist
history?
* Does, this, then mean that in DYNAMIC
ANALYSIS we can no
longer take it for granted
that simple labour
is a given?
* If simple labor is not taken to be given
axiomatically in dynamic analysis, how
should
it then be included in dynamic models?
E.g.
should we views changes in simple labor
as
occurring DISCONTINUOUSLY OR
CONTINUOUSLY? What are the
implications
of each in terms of how we comprehend
simple
labor changing historically? If we model
these
changes as happening discontinuously, should
we consider using a "simple labor traverse"
a
la Hicks (_Capital and Time_) and Lowe
(The
Path of Economic Growth_)?
* Would this then mean that we must reject the
position that simple abstract labour creates
the
same amount of value in all countries and
all
periods of time? I believe that position
(i.e.
assumption and/or axiom) has been embodied
in certain dynamic analyses by Marxists, e.g.
by
listmember Alan F.
Thoughts?
In solidarity, Jerry
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- [OPE-L:5302] how simple is 'simple labour' in dynamic analysis?, Gerald_A_Levy Sat 31 Mar 2001, 23:59 GMT
- [OPE-L:5300] Re: Unproductive labour and illusions of competition, Gerald_A_Levy Sat 31 Mar 2001, 13:07 GMT
- [OPE-L:5301] Re: Re: Unproductive labour and illusions of competition, Rakesh Narpat Bhandari Sat 31 Mar 2001, 16:46 GMT
- [OPE-L:5303] Re: Re: Unproductive labour and illusions of competition, Allin Cottrell Sun 01 Apr 2001, 00:13 GMT
- [OPE-L:5280] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: state and workers'ownership and (un)productive labor, paul bullock Wed 28 Mar 2001, 22:05 GMT