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[OPE-L:3563] Re: RE: Re: RE: money-capital as initial givens



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At 00:58 05/07/00 +0100, you wrote:
Fred.
My point is that the scale of what capitalists earn will vary with the
amount of money put forward at the start of the M-C-M' circuit.  And since
you agree that M can be expanded from credit then the scale of M' is driven
by what what capitalists spend (M) as initial outlays.  What they spend is
not constrained by what they earn, it is only constrained by credit
arrangements. In this sense they earn what they spend. Regardless of the
volume of surplus labour produced in the previous period they can expand
their money spending in accordance with how much can be borrowed. The volume
of surplus labour is therefore driven by the initial money spend.

Am not sure if I am articulating this well, but I think if you view
capitalism as a monetary production economy then this way of reasoning
follows logically.  Viewing surplus labour as the starting point, as if it
was some sort of virtual bank holding labour units, is akin I think to a
corn model in which the farmer holds corn units.

Yours comradely, Andrew.

Andrew, I am not sure that you should imply any opposition between Marx and Kalecki on this. I think that Kalecki's dynamic equations are derived from a reading of chapter 20 part 5 of volume 2 of capital, where Marx makes essentially the same point. The argument is implicit throughout this section but is brought out clearly in the paragraph:

So far as the entire capitalist class is concerned, the proposition
that it must itself throw into circulation the money required for the
realisation of its surplus-value (correspondingly also for the
circulation of its capital, constant and variable) not only fails to appear
paradoxical, but stands forth as a necessary condition of the
entire mechanism. For there are here only two classes: the working-class
disposing only of its labour-power, and the capitalist class,
which has a monopoly of the social means of production and money. It would
rather be a paradox if the working-class were to advance in the
first instance from its own resources the money required for the
realisation of the surplus-value contained in the commodities.
But the individual capitalist makes this advance only by acting as a buyer,
expending money in the purchase of articles of consumption or
advancing money in the purchase of elements of his productive capital,
whether of labour-power or means of production. He never parts
with his money unless he gets an equivalent for it. He advances money
to the circulation only in the same way as he advances commodities
to it. He acts in both instances as the initial point of their circulation.

This is basically Kalecki's point. I am not sure whether Marx fully realised the implications of this for dynamics, or even for the general explanation for the existence of profit, but even now, I dont think anyone has clearly explained the interrelation between Kalecki's equations for the determination of profit, and the production of surplus value.



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