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In [OPE-L:3443], Paul C wrote: > Foreign labour does not count towards the production of US value. To begin with, foreign labour is an ambiguous term in the context of advanced capitalist economies where there are undocumented and "guest" workers. However, I understand by the above that you mean labour performed within the borders of a country (in this case, the US). The problem, though, is that in the context of trans-national corporate production, the labour performed in other countries *does* count towards what is SNLT. And, of course, the corporations themselves know well that labour performed in other countries counts towards the value of the commodities "produced" in the US. Thus in auto manufacturing (a more precise term would be auto *assembly*) in the US a majority of the parts are produced abroad. [Unlike most countries, there is no auto (labor) "content" regulation in the US. The UAW fought unsucessfully for such legislation in the late 1970's and 80's]. It seems to me that in thinking of the *geography of value production* we have to think of two "maps". In the first "map" of the world, the world is divided into distinct nation-states with borders and sovereignty. This is the traditional "map" in economics and the one I take it you are referring to (indeed, it is hard to imagine i/o tables not being developed on this basis). In the second "map" (which, in reality, is super-imposed on the 1st map, i.e. in reality both maps exist), the world is divided among distinct capitalist corporations. It is still commonplace to refer to large corporations as "US corporations" or "Japanese corporations" or "British [sic] corporations", yet it is frequently not accurate to pigeon-hole corporations on the basis of the country where they are incorporated or where they have their corporate headquarters. These corporations often produce and sell commodities (often the same commodities) in dozens of countries. Moreover, in a world where there is a growing role for *regional trade associations* (such as the Common Market and NAFTA), one might claim that instead of referring to value production in the US or the UK one needs to refer to value production within a customs union. In principle, it might be possible to sort all of this out in terms of empirical measurement, but it would be a difficult task and canby no means be accurately measured with a simple valuation of imports. Indeed, the very meaning of the term "import" changes fundamentally once there is a RTA. Can we, for example, now talk about commodities being produced in Canada and "imported" into the US? Note, btw, that many of those commodities produced in Canada are produced by labor employed by "US" corporations. In solidarity, Jerry
- [OPE-L:3461] Re: measurement of value and shadow prices, (continued)
- [OPE-L:3461] Re: measurement of value and shadow prices, Paul Cockshott Fri 09 Jun 2000, 10:03 GMT
- [OPE-L:3464] Re: measurement of value, Andrew Brown Fri 09 Jun 2000, 11:03 GMT
- [OPE-L:3456] Re: Gil's necessary conditions, Gil Skillman Thu 08 Jun 2000, 23:00 GMT
- [OPE-L:3455] Re: Re: valuation of imports, JERRY LEVY Thu 08 Jun 2000, 12:17 GMT
- [OPE-L:3454] Re: valuation of imports, JERRY LEVY Thu 08 Jun 2000, 06:20 GMT
- [OPE-L:3463] Re: Re: valuation of imports, Paul Cockshott Fri 09 Jun 2000, 10:21 GMT
- [OPE-L:3453] Re: Re: measurement of value, Andrew Brown Wed 07 Jun 2000, 12:47 GMT
- [OPE-L:3452] Re: Re: equalisation of profit rates, Steve Keen Wed 07 Jun 2000, 08:34 GMT
- [OPE-L:3450] Re: equalisation of profit rates, Duncan K. Foley Wed 07 Jun 2000, 02:58 GMT