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Hi, Jerry. You write: > >I have a hypothetical question for you: Assume an economic system in >which all production is being performed by small producers (e.g. >family farmers and self-employed artisans) who are dependent on >loans from usurers. Assume, further, that all products are produced >with the intention of being sold. The question: do you consider >this economic system to be capitalist? To me, this is not the relevant counterfactual, since it changes the status quo along more than one dimension, and arbitrarily so. So if you'll indulge me for a second, let me pose and answer a slightly amended hypothetical question, and ask you if it fits the point you're after. Then I'll return to your question as posed. Let's assume a system that we would all agree is capitalist--that of the U.S., for example. Now imagine that for whatever reason, capitalists elect to exploit workers solely via a modern version of the putting-out system, such that capitalists engage teams of workers to produce using solely equipment and materials owned and supplied by capitalists. The essential difference from the status quo is that capitalists exercise no direct control over the production process, and don't even independently control the management team that runs production. Thus they must either engage the entire labor team--both supervisory and line workers--or not engage it at all. The reason I pose this version of the hypothetical question is that Jerry's imposes, in my understanding, too many additional changes from the status quo that are idiosyncratic to the historical period in which usury capital first developed. Of particular significance here are (1) the restriction to "small" producers rather than labor teams capable of running even the largest-scale existing production processes, and (2) the restriction to usury, that is, loan, that is, interest-bearing capital, which yields fixed rather than variable income streams. Capitalists might typically prefer to take the latter, so that the restriction to fixed income loans could be arbitrary. Supposing that my reasons for amending your hypothetical question are satisfactory, Jerry, I can answer that I would certainly consider the hypothetical economy to be a capitalist one. To do otherwise, I think, is to confuse surface detail with underlying causes, something that Marx would certainly have warned us against. Control of production is a strategic weapon used by capitalists to ensure the maximum possible extraction of surplus value. Were this weapon strategically unnecessary, for whatever reason, that would mean that capitalists could extract at least the same amount of surplus value, and thus exploit workers to at least the same extent, without actually running the production process. Exploitation is still exacted via market exchange relations (i.e., via circuits of capital), and surplus value still "originates" in production--workers must create new value in order to pay off the capitalists. Thus, per Marx's dictate in V. I Chapter 5, surplus value has "its origin both in circulation and not in circulation." Therefore the system is, in my view, certainly capitalist. To meet exactly the conditions of your hypothetical question, I would have to add the following stipulations to my amended one: if, despite being able to resort to variable-income capital exchanges and to contract with *large* labor teams, capitalists elect to finance only small producers, and through usury capital contracts, then for the reason given above I would not hesitate in calling this new scenario capitalist, as well. If you would not allow me these amendments, I'd have to ask about the seemingly arbitrary restrictions to small production processes and solely usury capital. For what it's worth, I don't consider the historical periods in which these conditions coexisted to feature capitalist economies, although I certainly agree with Marx's repeated assessment that they involved relations of capitalist exploitation. Gil
- [OPE-L:3421] objectivity of value, Rakesh Bhandari Fri 02 Jun 2000, 15:31 GMT
- [OPE-L:3435] Re: objectivity of value, Paul Cockshott Mon 05 Jun 2000, 12:06 GMT
- [OPE-L:3419] Re: Gil's criticisms, glevy Fri 02 Jun 2000, 14:49 GMT
- [OPE-L:3412] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: measurement of value, Rakesh Bhandari Thu 01 Jun 2000, 20:31 GMT
- [OPE-L:3411] Re: Re: Re: Gil's criticisms, Gil Skillman Thu 01 Jun 2000, 20:24 GMT
- [OPE-L:3429] Re: Re: Re: Re: Gil's criticisms, michael a. lebowitz Sun 04 Jun 2000, 17:34 GMT
- [OPE-L:3410] Re: Re: further replies to Gil, Gil Skillman Thu 01 Jun 2000, 19:52 GMT
- [OPE-L:3409] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: measurement of value, Rakesh Bhandari Thu 01 Jun 2000, 16:42 GMT
- [OPE-L:3417] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: measurement of value, Paul Cockshott Fri 02 Jun 2000, 09:44 GMT