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On Tue, 30 May 2000 bhandari@xxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote: > Again I don't think we can say that the labor theory of value is > logically derived in volume 1. It is proposed, hypothesized; it can > only be verified to the extent that it can make sense of evident > anomalies and explain the actual course of capitalist develdopment. > And this is not done in Part 1. Rakesh, I agree with you that Marx's argument in Chapter 1 does not provide an "air-tight" logical proof that prices can only be explained by values. I would say rather that it provides a strong argument why this is a plausible assumption, if one analyzes prices from an objective perspective. But other theories of prices, based on different perspectives (e.g. subjective preferences) are certainly possible. I also agree that the ultimate criterion on the basis of which a choice between alternative theories should be made is some type of empirical criterion, a comparison of explanatory power (which is of course easier said than done). Again, my paper in response to Blaug is the type of empirical assessment that I have in mind. I also think that this is what Marx had in mind when he said in a letter (July 11, 1868): "even if there were no chapter on `value' in my book, the analysis of the real relations which I give would contain the proof and demonstration of the real value relations. All that palaver about the necessity of proving the concept of value comes from complete ignorance both of the subject dealt with and of scientific method." (Selected Correspondence, p. 196) Rakesh, I also agree with you in (#3371) that Chapters 5 and 6 do not prove that the exploitation theory of surplus-value is the only theory possible. Rather, Marx is logically developing his theory of surplus-value on the basis of his theory of value, as derived in Chapter 1. The relative validity of Marx's theory again depends on its relative explanatory power. But I would also argue that there are no logical errors in Chapters 5 and 6, of the sort that Gil has suggested. If the labor theory of value is valid, then the conclusions that Marx derives from it in Chapters 5 and 6 are also valid. Marx's logic is indeed "air-tight" in Chapters 5 and 6 (although it is not a proof that this is the only possible theory of surplus-value). Thanks for your comments. Comradely, Fred
- [OPE-L:3407] Re: Re: Re: Re: objectivity of value, Rakesh Bhandari Thu 01 Jun 2000, 16:10 GMT
- [OPE-L:3415] Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: objectivity of value, Paul Cockshott Fri 02 Jun 2000, 09:26 GMT
- [OPE-L:3428] objectivity of value, michael a. lebowitz Sat 03 Jun 2000, 17:09 GMT
- [OPE-L:3437] Re: objectivity of value, Paul Cockshott Mon 05 Jun 2000, 12:33 GMT
- [OPE-L:3401] Re: Gil's criticisms, Fred B. Moseley Thu 01 Jun 2000, 13:16 GMT
- [OPE-L:3400] Re: objectivity of value, Fred B. Moseley Thu 01 Jun 2000, 12:31 GMT
- [OPE-L:3402] Re: Re: objectivity of value, Patrick L. Mason Thu 01 Jun 2000, 13:26 GMT
- [OPE-L:3403] Re: Re: Re: objectivity of value, Michael Perelman Thu 01 Jun 2000, 15:00 GMT
- [OPE-L:3404] Re: Re: Re: objectivity of value, Paul Cockshott Thu 01 Jun 2000, 15:12 GMT