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Mike W wrote > This assertion of Fred's: > > > 3. But Marx also argued that they key question in a theory of > capitalism > > is to explain the determination of the magnitude of the dM. This point > is > > stated very clearly in the following excerpt from the "Results" > > manuscript: > > Is, I submit, not supported by this quote: > > > > The fact that the purpose of the process is that x should be > > transformed into x + dx also POINTS TO THE PATH OUR OWN > > INVESTIGATION SHOULD TAKE. The result must be expressed > > as the FUNCTION OF A VARIABLE QUANTITY, or be transformed into > > one during the process. As a given sum of money, x is a constant > > from the outset and hence its increment = 0. In the course of the > > process, therefore, it must be changed into another amount which > > contains a variable element. OUR TASK IS IS TO DISCOVER THIS > > COMPONENT AND AT THE SAME TIME TO IDENTIFY THE MEDIATIONS BY MEANS > > OF WHICH A CONSTANT MAGNITUDE BECOMES A VARIABLE ONE. > > (Capital, vol. 1, Vintage edition, p. 977; emphasis added). > > Rather, Marx says quite clearly here that the capitalist system must > determine (throw up determinations of) the quantity of surplus-value > (expressed in money). And that we (the investigators) must grasp the > mediations by which this occurs. That doesn't speak one way or the other > to > the necessity for the theory to determine magnitudes - just that it must > explain how such magnitudes are reproduced in the theoretical object - > capitalism. > I entirely agree that this is a reasonable *possible* interpretation of Marx. But I suggest that on the face of it an *equally* possible interpretation of "The result must be expressed as the function of a variable quantity..." is what a modern (bur arguably naive) reader might make of it: namely that Marx was precisely demanding a mathematical model with quantitative consequences. We know that Marx at least dabbled in maths: what stage were his investigations at when the passage above was drafted? the "x + dx" stuff suggests that he had begun his reflections on the calculus at the relevant time -- in which case what reason is there for supposing that he did *not* intend to demand a quantitative model (a demand which would, of course, not exclude -- rather, include -- the interpretation Mike argues for)? Julian
- [OPE-L:2054] Re: Re: Value of Au, (continued)
- [OPE-L:2054] Re: Re: Value of Au, Duncan K. Foley Sat 08 Jan 2000, 04:51 GMT
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- [OPE-L:2029] Re: RE: Re: A possible paradox in the theory of value, Andrew_Kliman Wed 05 Jan 2000, 04:17 GMT
- [OPE-L:2027] RE: Re: Aristotle's Economic Thought, P . J . Wells Tue 04 Jan 2000, 23:03 GMT
- [OPE-L:2026] RE: Re: value-form theories, P . J . Wells Tue 04 Jan 2000, 22:43 GMT
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- [OPE-L:2031] Re: Re: A possible paradox in the theory of value, clyder Wed 05 Jan 2000, 11:00 GMT
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