Re: [Marxism] Imperialism and the US working class (Was YADL)

["S. Artesian" <sartesian@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

My argument is not that "privilege" does NOT exist in sectors of the working 
class, but rather that privilege is not based on the transfer of wealth from 
poorer to less poor, from more exploited to less exploited BY the 
bourgeoisie as either an intentional or unintentional product of the 
expansion of capital beyond, or within, national boundaries.

There are different historical developments-- wages in the US were 
historically higher than wages for equivalent work in Europe.  White workers 
have had a different historical development, and enjoyed a definite 
privilege in comparison to the development of black workers.

But it makes no sense, and in fact, is simply not the case that such 
privilege has been economically bestowed or purchased through the relegation 
of black workers to lower wage jobs.  I would recommend we look at the 
history of the class struggles of black workers, and for industrial unions 
in Memphis during [and before and after] the Boss Crump era.  White workers 
wages were higher than blacks, but in the industrial enterprise there was no 
"transfer of wealth,"  or division of the wage packet with higher payments 
going to whites based on reduced black wages. There could be none, precisely 
because black were so restricted, and excluded from industrial production.

 Now one might argue that the underpayment, and "underemployment"--  
restriction of blacks from industrial employment-- was instrumental in 
establishing the total social surplus that could be allotted, or utilized, 
in establishing a general wage, with whites getting more at the expense of 
blacks-- but the history of what happens next-- with the actual industrial 
struggles in Memphis puts the truth, or the lie to that.

The entry of industrial unionism into Memphis and the struggle for increased 
wages for white workers required just that break down of exclusion, 
restriction, and relegation of black labor, and just that increase in black 
labor wages.  Certainly equality was not achieved, but the increase in white 
wages required the inclusion of black labor and an increase in the black 
wage.

Look, wage differentials, and privilege, exist between and among sectors 
without race distinctions-- the two-tier structure, the step/seniority 
system-- hell, on railroads conductors make more money than track workers--  
and for years blacks were restricted from becoming conductors, but there was 
no transfer of wealth from track workers to conductors; conductors have no 
interest in restricting the wages of track workers.

Conductors certainly resisted allowing track workers to enter their ranks, 
based mostly on fear of losing "control" of the work, based partly on 
racism, prejudice, etc.-- BUT the historical evolution of capitalism was 
not, is not about transferring wealth or wages from one sector to the other.

----- Original Message ----- 
From: <Waistline2@xxxxxxx>
To: <sartesian@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Sunday, April 05, 2009 5:04 PM
Subject: Re: [Marxism] Imperialism and the US working class (Was YADL)


> 


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