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Re: [Marxism] work-needs



Message: 2 Date: Tue, 15 Jul 2008 22:34:14 -0400 (GMT-04:00)
From: "s.artesian" <sartesian@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Subject: Re: [Marxism] work-needs

<<...this does not change the equivalence of the working day for the producers,
and the essential basis for the equality of wages. Wages are not, under
capitalism, automatically determined by the values of the commodities produced.
Wages under socialism cannot be "graded" on the basis of quantities of
use-values produced per worker. We are not, with socialism, accumulating
values. We are supposed to be consciously directing production for the
satisfaction of need. I think the problem I describe with railroad workers
points out the impossibility of making that sort of differentiation based of
"quantities" produced."

Deeply empathetic with the equivalence of labors implicit in S. Artesianâs
postings it is, nonetheless, necessary to point out that:

The value of labor-power (v), as much as any commodity, depends upon itâs
cost of (re-) production. And in what does the value-in-use of this particular
peculiar commodity consist? In its abilities to (a.) conserve (though in a
different form) the values of the means of production (c) upon which it acts;
and, singular amongst all commodities, in its ability to b.) add new value in
the form of an output of products whose aggregate value exceeds the costs of
its inputs.

Assuming a general rate of surplus-value (Sâ) whereby all laborers are
exploited at a uniform rate, then the value produced, on average, by the
individual laborer (l) stands in direct proportion to both the cost of
production of his labor-power ( r ) and to the value added by his labor (which,
under capitalism is the surplus-value (s)). Or,

l| r|s

One could also add that the wage (v) stands in similar proportion.

A deduction that could be drawn from the above is that the more costly the
labor-power, the greater the value produced and reproduced (s + v = l).

Now, as much as much as we might like and strive to set up the conditions that
will ameliorate the consequent inequalities that this implicates, the fact is
that the economics of Marx is clear that the value-adding abilities of
different labor-powers (and, not so clearly but nonetheless implicit, amongst
different laborers of the same labor-powers) so long as these are the results
of differing costs of production will be different.

The question of equality of compensation must be one that is debated in the
social sphere of distribution as argument for such a proposition is not to be
found in the sphere of production. That is okay. It in no way undermines the
argument for such an equalization, it merely transfers the debate to a
different arena.

JAI

Marx from the CotGP:

âWhat we have to deal with here is a communist society, not as it has
developed on its own foundations, but, on the contrary, just as it emerges from
capitalist society; which is thus in every respect, economically, morally, and
intellectually, still stamped with the birthmarks of the old society from whose
womb it emerges. Accordingly, the individual producer receives back from
society -- after the deductions have been made -- exactly what he gives to it.
What he has given to it is his individual quantum of labor. For example, the
social working day consists of the sum of the individual hours of work; the
individual labor time of the individual producer is the part of the social
working day contributed by him, his share in it. He receives a certificate from
society that he has furnished such-and-such an amount of labor (after deducting
his labor for the common funds); and with this certificate, he draws from the
social stock of means of consumption as much as the same amount of labor cost.
The same amount of labor which he has given to society in one form, he receives
back in another.

Here, obviously, the same principle prevails as that which regulates the
exchange of commodities, as far as this is exchange of equal values.â

http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1875/gotha/ch01.htm

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