[Marxism] Mielants

[bhandari@xxxxxxxxxxxx]

So Mielants shows that pre-1942 capitalist logic unique to Europe (due to
nexus of maritime trade between autonomous cities) and would have issued
in the industrial capitalism by which the hegemony of the West was
achieved even had the Americas not been conquered and developed through
slave labor?
But why then the eclipse of the Italian city states?
RB




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