RE: [Marxism] French elections...the uniqueness of revolutions in history

["Mark Lause" <MLause@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

I've not followed this tangent too closely, but each revolution is unique.
The American Revolution wasn't "exactly as radical" as anything.

1688 confirmed the emergence of the course of English class rule established
in the Civil War forty years earlier.  It changed little about rule.  The
American Revolution established a different national ruling class instead of
the overseas rule by Britain.  Apples and oranges.  Or apple juice and
orange jumpsuits.

Certainly, it did not give "a Southern slaveholder with 1,000 human chattels
600 times as many votes as a propertyless Northern workingman."  Suffrage
varied widely among the states.  The absolutely propertyless workingman,
North or South, had no vote at all.

In fact, it was more like thirteen revolutions in 1776 (fourteen actually,
if you consider what became Vermont) and each of them took unique courses,
some quite radical.  Workers with a modest amount of property, not
necessarily land, did play an active role in places like Pennsylvania...
which began phasing out slavery at the time of the Revolution, as did most
of the Northern states.  This was not a coincidence.

ML







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