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Re: [Marxism] French elections

On 4/19/07, Shane Mage <shmage@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

The American "revolution" was exactly as radical as the
"Glorious Revolution" of 1688. The difference between the American
and French Revolutions can be seen clearly in this one fact: the French
Revolution abolished slavery; the American "revolution" produced
a constitution that not only enshrined slavery but actually gave a Southern
slaveholder with 1,000 human chattels 600 times as many votes as
a propertyless Northern workingman.

I have to agree with this point.

However, this is slightly misleading (on a minor point). The
slaveowner didn't get any more "personal" votes than anyone else at
the time -- the slave population of states were counted as "one fifth"
only for purposes of representation in the House of Reps.

But this a point well taken.

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