RE: [Marxism] two questions on Marx

["Austin, Andrew" <austina@xxxxxxxx>]

Because capitalist-worker was the dialectic.

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From: marxism-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx on behalf of George Snedeker
Sent: Fri 8/11/2006 6:55 PM
To: Activists and scholars in Marxist tradition
Subject: [Marxism] two questions on Marx



1. why did Marx rely on a definition of the proletariat as industrial factory 
workers when there were so many other members of the working class like 
domestic servants, sailors, dock workers, mine workers, farm workers and of 
course slaves.

why did Marx insist on defining the capitalist mode of production by the sale 
of labor power. perhaps this was required by what he called the "law of value" 
but I am not sure that this was a good enough reason for limiting the 
definition of the CMP to the sale of labor power. this line of argument led 
Marx to conclude that the proletariat was a revolutionary class because of its 
centrality to the accumulation of capital, but was this not a theoretical as 
well as a political error?
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