RE: [Marxism] Is "class" at the root of the real division in society?

["Mark Lause" <MLause@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

George  Anthony, quoting the COMMUNIST MANIFESTO, posts: "The bourgeoisie,
wherever it has got the upper hand, has put an end to all feudal,
patriarchal, idyllic relations. It has pitilessly torn asunder the motley
feudal ties that bound man to his 'natural superiors' . . . ."

He adds that these words appeared "Just a few  weeks before the 
French revolution of February 24th."

The course of that 1848 revolution and subsequent history has shown that the
bourgeoisie does not necessarily "put an end to all feudal, patriarchal,
idyllic relations."  It insists that capitalist relations establish the
essential prerequisites for class rule.

Once that's done, the new ruling class goes about making deals and
accommodating the vestiges of the old order that remain.  Long before 1917,
capitalism demonstrated its ability to incorporate into itself monarchy, the
Junkers, indentured servitude, slavery, tenant farming, etc., etc. 

ML








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