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[Marxism] Partisanship and Objectivity in Theoretical Work






Yes, just one point of order. This is _Cornforth's_ use of "ideology" ,not
my use of "ideology".

I'm more interested in his analysis of the relationship between objectivity
and partisanship. I'm not signing on to his use of ideology, and don't have
to in order to discuss objectivity and partisanship.

I'm "neutral" on his use of "ideology". There was a "Battle of Ideas" in
the era of the Soviet Union.

Charles

^^^^^

Carrol Cox :

I would agree with this in substance, but you jumble two different topics. I
agree that what you label "objectivity" is not the same as what you label
"neutrality." Moreover, I think your choice of labels for these two 'things'
is a legitimate choice. BUT, you must not confuse questions about the world
with questions about the uses of words. If someone uses "objectivity" to
name neutrality, you can demand that they explain more fully what they mean,
but you can't object to their word choice, because that is how the words are
actually used in English.

Now Charles can't insist that you adopt _his_ vocabulary, but neither can
you insist that he adopt your vocabulary. In reading you, Charles has to
honor the meaning _you_ give to your words (as long as that word choice is
generally consistent with the history of the word's usage); in reading him,
you have to honor _his_ usage (as long as that usage does not violate the
history of the word's usage).

Hence you are wrong when you speak of a "misuse of the term ideology,"
because in fact the word is constantly used in that sense. You can't fight
the language. Now, for discussion among Marxists, I think your choice of
terminology is preferable. But the _term_ can be and often is used as
Charles uses it, and you can't say it's a misuse, but you can say (and he
has to accept this) that _you_ use a different sense "ideology," and he has
to accept that. If you want to argue with each other, argue about the world,
not about words.

Carrol


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