Re: [Marxism] Did Cannon have a "liquidationist" position on theBlackquestion in the U.S.?

["rrubinelli" <rrubinelli@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

OK, so what does that mean "as a people"?  Does that mean emancipation
is somehow distinct from socialism?  If it is, please explain.  Does it
mean emancipation has to necessarily telescope, or grow over, or will of
necessity become a struggle for socialism over the means of production?
If so let's explain that.

Does it "as a people"  mean there are no class distinctions within the
black population-- that there is a commonality of interests among black
workers and black (petit)-bourgeoisie?

The issue is, IMO, not "to recognized black people as a people,"  but to
recognize and apprehend the specific historical origin,the material
determinants of the exploitation of black people-- and that origin is
all about the exploitation of labor.

The overthrow of those determinants has to become, because of those
origins, a struggle for the overthrow of capitalism, private property,
for the "general" emancipation of labor.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Carrol Cox" <cbcox@xxxxxxxxx>
To: "Activists and scholars in Marxist tradition"
<marxism@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Saturday, March 04, 2006 5:20 PM
Subject: Re: [Marxism] Did Cannon have a "liquidationist" position on
theBlackquestion in the U.S.?


>
>
> thomas muntzer wrote:
> >
> > In response to Joaquin:
> >
> > First of all I think you're doing a bit of a straw man
> > argument.  You say we all have to recognize black
> > people as a "people."
>
> That is not how I read his post -- he said that we all have to
recognize
> black People as "*A* People," collectively. That is not the same at
all
> as recognizing them as people, though it takes that for granted of
> course.
>
> Carrol
>
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